Why does Romans 10:9 say confession must be made with the mouth? Is that a requirement for salvation?

Why does Romans 10:9 say confession must be made with the mouth?  Is that a requirement for salvation?

Romans 10:9:  "That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved."

Brian Kelson's answer:  In Romans verse 1 & 21, Israel remain God's people and Paul's desire is their salvation.

Rom 10:1  Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved.

Rom 10:2  For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge.

Rom 10:21  But to Israel he saith, All day long I have stretched forth my hands unto a disobedient and gainsaying people.

In verse 4, Christ is the object or goal of the Law as per Gals.3, and thus the Law witnessed to the righteousness in Him as per Roms.3:20-22 (Roms.10:12). So we have this link between Israel fixated upon the Law and the testimony of the Law against their zeal and lack of faith which Moses speaks against in verse 5;

Rom 10:5  For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.

Then Paul quotes Moses as per the righteousness of faith in verses 6-8 thus;

Rom 10:6  But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above:)
Rom 10:7  Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.)
Rom 10:8  But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;

Notice Moses spoke of the heart and mouth in verse 8, and Paul flows on from this with the same words in verse 9-10 and thus the salvation by faith through grace is all in the OT

Rom 10:9  That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
Rom 10:10  For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

What is important is that Paul is constantly quoting the Old testament Scriptures which clearly speak of the salvation in view at that time, that is during Acts. There is no such instruction to confess with the mouth in the post Acts epistles. Also, confession was essential for the restoration of those sick because of their trespasses as in James 5. During Acts there were spirits who needed to be tested, 1Jn.4:1 and in 1Cor.12:3 only those empowered by the Spirit could say Jesus is Lord. Romans is an Acts period epistle and is understood in that dispensation.

Now, back to Romans 10 where the OT quotes continue to pour out of the apostle;

Rom 10:10  For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

Rom 10:11  For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.

Rom 10:12  For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
Rom 10:13  For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Roms.10:11 is a quote from Is.28 which he had already used back in 9:33 and where the faith Paul is writing about is linked with Zion which appears directly and indirectly in Romans many times. Here is Is. used by Paul in 10:11Isa 28:16  Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.

Do we see how practically the entire chapter 10 of Romans is Old Testament. Look at these verses;Rom 10:10  For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Rom 10:11  For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.
Rom 10:12  For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. See Ps.86:5, 145:18, Is.55:6, Paul had used Is.55 back in Acts 13:34
Rom 10:13  For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Romans 10:13 is a direct quote from Joel thus;Joe 2:32  And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

Once again Mount Zion and all those who call upon the name of the Lord shall be delivered which is precisely what Paul says in chapter 11:25-27.

So what gospel is it in chapter 10? Paul tells us in verse 15 which is a quote from good old Isaiah yet again (I hope we don't see Zion again because then it would be rather impossible to insert heavenly places as the hope of Romans); 

Rom 10:15  And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!

Isa 52:7  How beautiful upon the mountains are the feet of him that bringeth good tidings, that publisheth peace; that bringeth good tidings of good, that publisheth salvation; that saith unto Zion, Thy God reigneth!

Isa 52:8  Thy watchmen shall lift up the voice; with the voice together shall they sing: for they shall see eye to eye, when the LORD shall bring again Zion.

Isa 52:9  Break forth into joy, sing together, ye waste places of Jerusalem: for the LORD hath comforted his people, he hath redeemed Jerusalem.

Isa 52:10  The LORD hath made bare his holy arm in the eyes of all the nations; and all the ends of the earth shall see the salvation of our God.

Isa 52:11  Depart ye, depart ye, go ye out from thence, touch no unclean thing; go ye out of the midst of her; be ye clean, that bear the vessels of the LORD. (cp 2Cor.6:17).

So Israel have not all obeyed the gospel found in the Old Testament. And even that is as per Isaiah again;

Rom 10:16  But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?

Isa 53:1  Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?

Is.53 is all about the rejected Messiah who was made an offering for sin and who would justify many and is a prophesy about Israel, not the church which is His Body. When will mid-Acts accept that Paul's gospel in Romans is Old Testament based and he meant what he said in Acts 26:22. But let us finish the chapter.

Having quoted the OT so many times this is what Paul concludes;
Rom 10:17  So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

Faith comes be hearing WHAT word? The Word of the Mystery hidden in God? Impossible in this context. Paul goes on to peel things out of the OT; 

Rom 10:18  But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.

Psa 19:4  Their line is gone out through all the earth, and their words to the end of the world. In them hath he set a tabernacle for the sun,

Psa 19:5  Which is as a bridegroom coming out of his chamber, and rejoiceth as a strong man to run a race.

Psa 19:6  His going forth is from the end of the heaven, and his circuit unto the ends of it: and there is nothing hid from the heat thereof.

Psa 19:7  The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.

Psa 19:8  The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes.

Psa 19:9  The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring for ever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether.

Psa 19:10  More to be desired are they than gold, yea, than much fine gold: sweeter also than honey and the honeycomb.

Psa 19:11  Moreover by them is thy servant warned: and in keeping of them there is great reward.

Don't we love the reference to the Law and the Bridegroom in the Psalm? So consistent with the Acts period.

Romans 10:19-21 are direct quotes from the OT.

Roms.10:19 = Deut.32:21 (see verse 35-36 & 43 and compare Roms.12:19 [Hebs.10:30], Roms.15:10.

Roms.10:20-21 = Is.65:1-2 where Israel were stubborn but the Gentile inclusion is all prophetic.

Those who find a problem in the confession with the mouth which may, by the grace of God lead them into a mountain of problems in the same chapter when Romans is taught by mid-Acts as the dispensation of the grace of God.

My own summary: 

That scripture always bothered me because it seemed to add something to the gospel. Now I understand that it's connected to the scriptures of the OT prophets and is according to Israel's prophecy:

Deuteronomy 30:14 But the word is very nigh unto thee, in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it.

That scripture is the basis for:
Romans 10:8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;

Joel 2:32 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

This is the basis for:
Romans 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Salvation for the Israelite (and Gentiles who looked to be included in the kingdom on earth) was the kingdom itself, not a going to heaven hope like we have. They looked for Mount Zion and Jerusalem to be physically delivered from their enemies and for the messiah to rule.

That's why I believe now that during the Acts period, of which Romans was the last Pauline letter written before Israel was temporarily set aside, Paul was offering the kingdom and preaching the new gospel of grace that was part of the New Covenant God was offering Israel.

We're saved by the same gospel of grace but without all this kingdom prophecy stuff added in to embellish and authenticate it to his hearers. And our doctrine is found in Ephesians, Colossians, Philippians, Titus, Philemon, Timothy. There are only about 6 or 7 OT scriptures found in all these letters, while there are 70 in Romans alone!

There's a reason Paul's earlier epistles sound so Jewish and that's why.

If the kingdom was still in view when Paul wrote his Acts epistles, why would he write that tongues, etc. "shall cease" (1 Cor. 13:8-12)?

If the kingdom was still in view when Paul wrote his Acts epistles, why would he write that tongues, etc. "shall cease" (1 Cor. 13:8-12)?   Weren't the sign gifts something God used to leave Israel without excuse after setting them aside temporarily at the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7 and that would cease when the Bible was completed as Mid Acts dispensationalism teaches?

Let's return to the opening of this first letter to the Corinthian believers:

1Co 1:4  I thank my God always on your behalf, for the grace of God which is given you by Jesus Christ;

 

1Co 1:5  That in everything ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;

 

1Co 1:6  Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:

 

1Co 1:7  So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:

      

     1Co 1:8  Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless           the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Notice, the gifts were a confirmation and would remain unto the end, that is, the apocalypse, not until Paul or anyone else had "done their job leaving Israel without excuse".

In 1Cor. 10:11, the ends of the world (age) had come upon them, not some transition period.   We shall not all die, we who are alive and remain, 2 Cor.12, paradise, unspeakable words, 2 Cor. 11, chaste virgins, all of the elements must be considered when understanding 1Cor. 13. 1Cor and 2Cor. looked to the coming of the Lord, not the full explanation of partial mystery which has nothing to do with prophesy.

The specific passage is in Paul's response to (their question or problems with) supernatural gifts; and he is saying, When we fully know, which is understood when partial knowledge (that is the gift) is replaced, then tongues, another gift will cease. When face to face, i. e., when the Lord comes, THEN partial knowledge will vanish away.   This context has nothing to do with any progressive revelation, but is understood in the fast-approaching apocalypse as stated at the opening of the letter.   They had the gifts until the parousia, despite their squabbling.   The supernatural continued all the way to Acts 28 when they were temporarily set aside as the preeminent nation.

I don't see any reference to "leaving Israel without excuse" in that context of supernatural gifts which flowed from 1Cor. 12 and continues on into 14 where verse 21 refers to the Law which, again, has nothing to do with the present dispensation.   "Without excuse" is in Romans 1:20 which is about the invisible things of creation which speak of God and has no connection to supposedly fading supernatural gifts.  (Brian Kelson)   For more information, please see #14 at http://bibleunderstanding.com/ptaudios.htm

Did believers converted under the kingdom hope of the Acts period cross over into the new hope of the mystery revealed post-Acts?

Did believers converted under the kingdom hope of the Acts period cross over into the new hope of the mystery revealed post-Acts? 

Titus is mentioned in 2 Corinthians and Galatians so what dispensation would Titus be in?

Acts 28 was a huge dispensational boundary and a unique 

point in God's purposes.  Paul and Titus certainly crossed 

that boundary; but Paul did not look back; he pressed onwards. 

He also prayed that the Ephesians, who also

crossed the line, would be given the wise and revealing spirit 

in the knowledge of Christ so they would know the hope, the inheritance and the power.   
These last three things had 

changed, but there was no change in

Christ's death, burial, and resurrection for salvation.   So Paul

wanted all believers to know about the change, to embrace it 

as he did.

Here are some passages to consider:

"Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended; but 

this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, 

and reaching forth unto those things which are before, I press

toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ

Jesus.   Let us therefore, as many as be perfect, be thus 

minded; and if in any thing ye be otherwise minded, God shall

reveal even this unto you."  (Php. 3:13-15)

"That we should be to the praise of his glory, who first 

[previously] trusted in Christ."  (Eph. 1:12)

"Wherefore I also, after I heard of your faith in the Lord Jesus,

and love unto all the saints, Cease not to give thanks for you,

making mention of you in my prayers; That the God of our Lord  Jesus Christ, 
the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of

wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: the eyes of

your understanding being enlightened; that ye may know what

is the hope of his calling, and what the riches of the glory of his

inheritance in the saints, And what is the exceeding greatness 

of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working

of his mighty power, Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised  
him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the

heavenly places;"  (Eph. 1:15-20)

Paul had been at Ephesus for 2 years and declared to 

them all the counsel of God and held back nothing, 

Acts 20:20, 27 but now he prayed they would know 

the things that had changed after Acts 28.   We

also read in Eph.4 that there is one hope of our

calling, singular.

We must leave those who crossed that boundary with 

the Lord but Paul rejoiced in the glory of the

new dispensation and the sufferings

associated with it. "Wherefore I desire that ye faint not 

at my tribulations for you, which is

your glory.   For this cause I bow my knees to the Father of 

our Lord Jesus Christ, of whom the whole family in Heaven 

and earth is named," (Eph. 3:13-14)

"Who now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up that

which is behind

of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh for his body's sake, 

which is the

church; whereof I am made a minister, according to the 

dispensation of God

given to me for you, to fulfill the word of God; Even

the mystery which hath been

hid from ages and from generations, but now has been 

revealed to his saints: to whom God would make known  
what is the riches of the glory of

this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, 

the hope of glory,"  (Col. 1:24-27)

Paul makes it clear that the riches of glory for all 

nations is found in the

new set of conditions that God introduced.  (Brian 

Kelson), see BibleUnderstanding FAQ   

FYI:  Brother Kelson is not KJV-Only 
so his articles may contain quotes from 
other versions.  
I took the liberty of changing the ones 
I've posted on this page 
to the King James version.

Did Paul write Hebrews?

Did Paul write Hebrews?

When I first learned of right division, this was my very first question directed to a teacher of Mid Acts dispensationalism and I was told in no uncertain terms that Paul could not have written it and had an article here on this blog telling the reasons why.  Now I've come full circle back to a place where I can entertain the notion that Paul may have been the author of Hebrews because of (1) similarity of writing style; (2) his unique salutation with which he ended all of his letters; (3) the fact that Peter says Paul wrote to kingdom saints in 2 Peter 3:15; and (4) it maintains a perfect balance in the New Testament of 7 Pauline kingdom epistles, 7 Hebrew epistles, and 7 Pauline mystery epistles.  For a more in-depth study of the question, please read:  http://bibleunderstanding.com/Hebrewauthorship2.pdf.

If the kingdom was still being offered, why did God allow the apostle James to be killed as recorded in Acts 12?

If the kingdom was still being offered, why did God allow the apostle James to be killed as recorded in Acts 12?

I asked Brian Kelson of Bible Understanding and he wrote:  "In the matter of James being killed in Acts 12, this is nothing more than 'normal' for the earthly kingdom purposes than the Lord's servants being persecuted.  A reading of Hebrews 11 reminds us of the many faithful servants of the Lord who suffered at the hands of their fellow countrymen while the kingdom was unfolding.  However, in the matter of James and John, their mother (Matt. 20:20-23) had asked that they sit either side of the Lord in his kingdom and he turned to them and asked were they able to drink of the cup and be baptized with the baptism he would endure, which was his rejection and death.  They replied 'we are able' and the Lord declared that they would indeed drink of the cup (garden pre-death phrase) and be baptized with the same baptism (of suffering and death).
Christ was resurrected for the kingdom, to sit on David's throne so no problem to raise up those sitting with him including David (Jer. 30:9). 

So, James' death in Acts 12 had nothing to do with judgment on Israel; but in the same chapter the Lord certainly judged the pseudo king of Israel who took glory upon himself rather than direct it to the rightful King."

Frequently Asked Questions on Acts 28 Division

Here's the page for questions and answers on Acts 28 being the Bible marker for where God temporarily set Israel aside and gave the apostle Paul the mystery of Ephesians & Colossians:

Where's a good overview of Acts 28?

If the kingdom was still being offered, why did God allow the apostle James to be killed as recorded in Acts 12?

Did believers converted under the kingdom hope of the Acts period cross over into the new hope of the mystery revealed post-Acts? 

If the kingdom was still in view when Paul wrote his Acts epistles, why would he write that tongues, etc. "shall cease" (1 Cor. 13:8-12)?   Weren't the sign gifts something God used to leave Israel without excuse after setting them aside temporarily at the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7 and that would cease when the Bible was completed as Mid Acts dispensationalism teaches?

Why does Romans 10:9 say confession must be made with the mouth?  Is that a requirement for salvation?
Romans 10:9:  "That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved."

What does 2 Cor. 5:16 (knowing Christ no longer in the flesh) mean to Paul's Acts ministry? 

Is the church today under the "New Covenant"?

"I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation" – what does that mean?

What does the Lord "standing" in Acts 7 really mean?

Did Israel blaspheme the Holy Spirit by stoning Stephen in Acts 7?

Are all those saved in the Acts Period then resurrected into Israel's earthly Kingdom? 

Did Paul write Hebrews?


What is the place of the book of Hebrews?

 

Did the Parable of the Fig Tree Add a Year to Israel's Chance at the Kingdom?

Will the whole remnant of Israel be protected during the Tribulation?

What exactly will the Remnant Inherit and When?

 

When was John given the Book of the Revelation?

What is the Significance of the "Two Adams"?

How Can Saints Raptured in 1 Corinthians 15 be Israel When They're Resurrected to Immortal Bodies but We Know Millennial Saints Can Die in Kingdom?

What is the Theme of Paul's Acts Ministry?

Was Israel already set aside in 1 Thessalonians 2:16 because their sins were filled up and "wrath is come upon them to the uttermost"?

Did Israel EVER blaspheme the Holy Ghost?Was Israel Cut Off at the Cross (& then given a one-year extension of mercy)?

Dmoes Acts 28 Teach TWO Bodies of Christ?

In What Way Did the Inclusion of Gentiles by the Gospel (Romans 11) PROVOKE Israel?

How Does Acts 28 Dispensationalism View Daniel's 70 Weeks?

Is Christ's Return Imminent or Are There Signs We Should Look For? 

 Is There Still the Hope of a Rapture? 

What is the hope of the church, the body of Christ, according to Paul's later letters?

Does James 2:24 Teach Justification Unto Eternal Life by Works for Kingdom Saints?

Is the creation of 2Cor.5:17 and the new creature of Gals.6,the creation of the one new man found in Ephesians 2? 

What are the spirits of just men made perfect in Hebrews 12 – and how are they (already) come to Mount Zion?

 What is the difference between "Zion" and "Sion"?

The Olive Tree – Are We Graft In? By Wayne Stewart

Did Jesus Teach the Law?

 

 

A Dispensation of the Gospel - 1 Corinthians 9:17

In response to my request for help in understanding 1 Corinthians 9:17, where the apostle Paul writes, "For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward; but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me," Brian Kelson of Bible Understanding wrote the following:

"Chapter 9 of 1 Corinthians is about service and the obligation of those who receive the ministrations to support the ones serving. It begins with the claim that there are those who are criticizing Paul, and he defends his apostleship and his rights to have the same support as anyone else.

But Paul makes no such claim upon them lest he hinder the gospel. He goes on to say, that he could glory if he had served of his own volition (9:17) but since it was not his will but the Lord's, because a dispensation or stewardship of the gospel was committed to him (by the Lord), he then claims his reward was to preach without charge lest he abuse his power in the gospel. This is the context. This is not about a new dispensation hitherto hidden in God, it is about the commissioned ministry Paul had received during Acts which made him serve without charge.

Thus Paul says he is free from all men because his Gospel and commission were directly from the Lord, (Gals.1, not, neither but), given him by a revelation or revealing of the Lord to Paul. He was in Arabia and taught by the Lord. Paul, thus is servant to all (without charge) for the gospel's sake. It is interesting in this context, that Paul runs and fights to receive his prize, his body under subjection, lest he should be disqualified or found reprobate which is what castaway means. For every occurrence of this Greek word adokimos (castaway) see Roms.1:28, 2Cor.13:5-7, 2Tim.3:8, Tit.1:16 = reprobate(s) and Hebs.6:8=rejected.

Paul was commissioned and responsibly ministered independently and supported himself as opposed to others because there was a prize in view which was far more reward than financial support.

Remember Roms.15:17-20 where Paul worked in virgin areas rather than build upon someone else's foundations (which shows that he could have built upon someone else's foundation if he so chose, which means the others were preaching that upon which Paul could build, they were not preaching something so opposed to Paul that he couldn't, get my drift?).

In summary, Paul's preaching and gospel was by direct revelation of the Lord, thus he would not charge because he served, looking for the Lord's reward which would be his in that Day.  But this "dispensation of the gospel" means stewardship in the gospel of Christ (9:18) – not the dispensation of the grace of God."