If the kingdom was still in view when Paul wrote his Acts epistles, why would he write that tongues, etc. "shall cease" (1 Cor. 13:8-12)?

If the kingdom was still in view when Paul wrote his Acts epistles, why would he write that tongues, etc. "shall cease" (1 Cor. 13:8-12)?   Weren't the sign gifts something God used to leave Israel without excuse after setting them aside temporarily at the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7 and that would cease when the Bible was completed as Mid Acts dispensationalism teaches?

Let's return to the opening of this first letter to the Corinthian believers:

1Co 1:4  I thank my God always on your behalf, for the grace of God which is given you by Jesus Christ;

 

1Co 1:5  That in everything ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge;

 

1Co 1:6  Even as the testimony of Christ was confirmed in you:

 

1Co 1:7  So that ye come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ:

      

     1Co 1:8  Who shall also confirm you unto the end, that ye may be blameless           the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Notice, the gifts were a confirmation and would remain unto the end, that is, the apocalypse, not until Paul or anyone else had "done their job leaving Israel without excuse".

In 1Cor. 10:11, the ends of the world (age) had come upon them, not some transition period.   We shall not all die, we who are alive and remain, 2 Cor.12, paradise, unspeakable words, 2 Cor. 11, chaste virgins, all of the elements must be considered when understanding 1Cor. 13. 1Cor and 2Cor. looked to the coming of the Lord, not the full explanation of partial mystery which has nothing to do with prophesy.

The specific passage is in Paul's response to (their question or problems with) supernatural gifts; and he is saying, When we fully know, which is understood when partial knowledge (that is the gift) is replaced, then tongues, another gift will cease. When face to face, i. e., when the Lord comes, THEN partial knowledge will vanish away.   This context has nothing to do with any progressive revelation, but is understood in the fast-approaching apocalypse as stated at the opening of the letter.   They had the gifts until the parousia, despite their squabbling.   The supernatural continued all the way to Acts 28 when they were temporarily set aside as the preeminent nation.

I don't see any reference to "leaving Israel without excuse" in that context of supernatural gifts which flowed from 1Cor. 12 and continues on into 14 where verse 21 refers to the Law which, again, has nothing to do with the present dispensation.   "Without excuse" is in Romans 1:20 which is about the invisible things of creation which speak of God and has no connection to supposedly fading supernatural gifts.  (Brian Kelson)   For more information, please see #14 at http://bibleunderstanding.com/ptaudios.htm