Sunday, April 14, 2013

Frequently Asked Questions on Acts 28 Division

Here's the page for questions and answers on Acts 28 being the Bible marker for where God temporarily set Israel aside and gave the apostle Paul the mystery of Ephesians & Colossians:

Where's a good overview of Acts 28?

If the kingdom was still being offered, why did God allow the apostle James to be killed as recorded in Acts 12?

Did believers converted under the kingdom hope of the Acts period cross over into the new hope of the mystery revealed post-Acts? 

If the kingdom was still in view when Paul wrote his Acts epistles, why would he write that tongues, etc. "shall cease" (1 Cor. 13:8-12)?   Weren't the sign gifts something God used to leave Israel without excuse after setting them aside temporarily at the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7 and that would cease when the Bible was completed as Mid Acts dispensationalism teaches?

Why does Romans 10:9 say confession must be made with the mouth?  Is that a requirement for salvation?
Romans 10:9:  "That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved."

What does 2 Cor. 5:16 (knowing Christ no longer in the flesh) mean to Paul's Acts ministry? 

What does the Lord "standing" in Acts 7 really mean?

Did Israel blaspheme the Holy Spirit by stoning Stephen in Acts 7?

Are all those saved in the Acts Period then resurrected into Israel's earthly Kingdom? 

Did Paul write Hebrews?

What is the place of the book of Hebrews?


Did the Parable of the Fig Tree Add a Year to Israel's Chance at the Kingdom?

Will the whole remnant of Israel be protected during the Tribulation?

What exactly will the Remnant Inherit and When?


When was John given the Book of the Revelation?

What is the Significance of the "Two Adams"?

How Can Saints Raptured in 1 Corinthians 15 be Israel When They're Resurrected to Immortal Bodies but We Know Millennial Saints Can Die in Kingdom?

What is the Theme of Paul's Acts Ministry?

Was Israel already set aside in 1 Thessalonians 2:16 because their sins were filled up and "wrath is come upon them to the uttermost"?

Did Israel EVER blaspheme the Holy Ghost?Was Israel Cut Off at the Cross (& then given a one-year extension of mercy)?

Dmoes Acts 28 Teach TWO Bodies of Christ?

In What Way Did the Inclusion of Gentiles by the Gospel (Romans 11) PROVOKE Israel?

How Does Acts 28 Dispensationalism View Daniel's 70 Weeks?

Is Christ's Return Imminent or Are There Signs We Should Look For? 

 Is There Still the Hope of a Rapture? 

What is the hope of the church, the body of Christ, according to Paul's later letters?

Does James 2:24 Teach Justification Unto Eternal Life by Works for Kingdom Saints?

Is the creation of 2Cor.5:17 and the new creature of Gals.6,the creation of the one new man found in Ephesians 2? 

What are the spirits of just men made perfect in Hebrews 12 – and how are they (already) come to Mount Zion?

 What is the difference between "Zion" and "Sion"?

The Olive Tree – Are We Graft In? By Wayne Stewart

Did Jesus Teach the Law?



Monday, April 1, 2013

A Dispensation of the Gospel - 1 Corinthians 9:17

In response to my request for help in understanding 1 Corinthians 9:17, where the apostle Paul writes, "For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward; but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me," Brian Kelson of Bible Understanding wrote the following:
"Chapter 9 of 1 Corinthians is about service and the obligation of those who receive the ministrations to support the ones serving. It begins with the claim that there are those who are criticizing Paul, and he defends his apostleship and his rights to have the same support as anyone else.
But Paul makes no such claim upon them lest he hinder the gospel. He goes on to say, that he could glory if he had served of his own volition (9:17) but since it was not his will but the Lord's, because a dispensation or stewardship of the gospel was committed to him (by the Lord), he then claims his reward was to preach without charge lest he abuse his power in the gospel. This is the context. This is not about a new dispensation hitherto hidden in God, it is about the commissioned ministry Paul had received during Acts which made him serve without charge.
Thus Paul says he is free from all men because his Gospel and commission were directly from the Lord, (Gals.1, not, neither but), given him by a revelation or revealing of the Lord to Paul. He was in Arabia and taught by the Lord. Paul, thus is servant to all (without charge) for the gospel's sake. It is interesting in this context, that Paul runs and fights to receive his prize, his body under subjection, lest he should be disqualified or found reprobate which is what castaway means. For every occurrence of this Greek word adokimos (castaway) see Roms.1:28, 2Cor.13:5-7, 2Tim.3:8, Tit.1:16 = reprobate(s) and Hebs.6:8=rejected.
Paul was commissioned and responsibly ministered independently and supported himself as opposed to others because there was a prize in view which was far more reward than financial support.
Remember Roms.15:17-20 where Paul worked in virgin areas rather than build upon someone else's foundations (which shows that he could have built upon someone else's foundation if he so chose, which means the others were preaching that upon which Paul could build, they were not preaching something so opposed to Paul that he couldn't, get my drift?).

In summary, Paul's preaching and gospel was by direct revelation of the Lord, thus he would not charge because he served, looking for the Lord's reward which would be his in that Day.  But this "dispensation of the gospel" means stewardship in the gospel of Christ (9:18) – not the dispensation of the grace of God."